Q2007Apr FE AM Questions WHL - [PDF Document] (2024)

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April, 2007

Fundamental IT Engineer Examination (Morning)

Questions must be answered in accordance with the following:

Question Nos. Q1 - Q80 Question Selection All questions arecompulsory Examination Time 9:30 - 12:00 (150 minutes)

Instructions: 1. Use a pencil. If you need to change an answer,erase your previous answer completely

and neatly. Wipe away any eraser debris.

2. Mark your examinee information and test answers in accordancewith the instructions below. Your test will not be graded if you donot mark properly. Do not mark or write on the answer sheet outsideof the prescribed places.

(1) Examinee Number Write your examinee number in the spaceprovided, and mark the appropriate space below each digit.

(2) Date of Birth Write your date of birth (in numbers) exactlyas it is printed on your examination admission card, and mark theappropriate space below each digit.

(3) Answers Select one answer (a through d) for each question.Mark your answers as shown in the following sample question.[Sample Question]

In which month is the next Fundamental IT Engineer Examinationconducted? Answer group

a) September b) October c) November d) December

Since the correct answer is b) (October), mark your answer sheetas follows:

[Sample Reply] No. a b c d Q 1

Do not open the exam booklet until instructed to do so.Inquiries about the exam questions will not be answered.

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Company names and product names appearing in the test questionsare trademarks or registered trademarks of

their respective companies. Note that the and symbols are notused within.

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Q1. Which of the following is the correct decimal fraction equalto hexadecimal fraction 0.248?

a) 31 32 b)

31 125 c)

31 512 d)

73 512

Q2. Which of the following is the correct value of the quadrupleof hexadecimal fraction

0.FEDC?

a) 1.FDB8 b) 2.FB78 c) 3.FB70 d) F.EDC0 Q3. In a floating-pointnumber format, which of the following is the correct operationfor

adjusting the radix point and the exponent so that the mostsignificant digit of the mantissa can be a non-zero value? Here, anabsolute value is used for the mantissa.

a) Carry b) Normalize c) Round down d) Round up Q4. The decimalvalue -72 is stored in an 8-bit register using 2s complement. Ifthe data

in the register is logically shifted two bits to the right,which of the following is the correct result that is represented indecimal?

a) -19 b) -18 c) 45 d) 46

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Q5. By definition of the IEEE754 standard, 32-bit floating pointnumbers are represented as follows:

S (1 bit) E (8 bits) M (23 bits)

S: Sign bit E: Exponent M: Mantissa

Which of the following is the correct mask bits in hexadecimalto be used for extracting only the exponent part of the aboveformat? Here, mask bits means a bit pattern which is logicallyANDed with the 32-bit floating point value.

a) 107FFFFF b) 7F800000 c) FF100000 d) FF800000 Q6. In the VennDiagrams labeled 1 to 3, which of the following is the result ofBoolean

OR operations for all three to be combined? Here, is used forlogical AND, + for logical OR, and A for the logical NOT of A. Eachset corresponding to x, y, or z is depicted by a circle

a) zyx + x + y b) zyx + x + y

c) zyx + x + y d) zyx + x + y

x y

1

x

2

x y

3

y

z z z

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Q7. When you flip a coin four times, what is the probabilitythat it will come up heads exactly twice?

a) 0.2 b) 0.375 c) 0.5 d) 0.625 Q8. There are two importantoperations on a stack: PUSH and POP. PUSH adds the new

data to the top of the stack leaving previous data below, andPOP removes and returns the current top data of the stack. When theoperations shown below are sequentially executed, which of thefollowing is the correct combination of the values x and y? Here,the size of the stack is big enough to hold the entire data.PUSH(a) inserts the data a into the stack, and POP(b) removes thedata b from the stack.

[Operations] PUSH (5); PUSH (3); PUSH (6); PUSH (1); x = POP (); PUSH (7); y = POP ( );

x y

a) 1 6 b) 1 7 c) 5 3 d) 5 7

Q9. Reverse Polish Notation (RPN) is used to representarithmetic expressions without

using brackets to define priorities for evaluation of operators.For example, 3(a+b) becomes 3ab+ in RPN. Which of the following isthe best data structure that should be used for implementation ofRPN in a computer?

a) List b) Queue c) Stack d) Tree

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Q10. Which of the following is an appropriate descriptionconcerning the list and/or array structures?

a) The list structure allows any data to be inserted or deletedsimply by modifying pointers. But, after the data was deleted, thecells that contained the data remain as garbage in memory.

b) The list structure is similar to the array structure in thatall data elements of the same type are sequentially lined up. Inthe list structure, the logical arrangement is the same as thephysical arrangement.

c) The number of operations is fixed in inserting or deleting anelement in an array; it does not depend on the position of theelement in the array.

d) Using a subscript for each element in an array, quick accessto any element can be achieved. The array structure allows any datato be inserted or deleted simply by modifying pointers.

Q11. The table below shows a state transition table that checksthe input character string.

This check starts from the initial state A, and it fails if thestate changes to E during the input of the character string. Whichof the character strings in the answer group fails this check?Here, the symbol in the answer group represents a space.

Input character

Space Numeric Sign Radix point Other

Cur

rent

stat

e A

B

C

D

A

A

E

A

B

B

B

E

C

E

E

E

D

D

D

E

E

E

E

E

a) +0010 b) -1 c) 12.2 d) 9.

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Q12. There are two jugs; one is a 4-liter (4L) jug and the otheris a 3-liter (3L) jug. Which of the following is the correctsequence to obtain exactly 2 liters of water in the 4L jug underthe conditions shown below? Here, (x, y) indicates that the 4L jugcontains x liters of water and the 3L jug has y liters ofwater.

[Conditions] You can use only the 3L and 4L jugs. You areallowed to fill up or empty either jug. You are allowed to pourwater from one jug to the other. The jugs have no scale marks.There is an ample supply of water.

a) (0,0) (0,3) (3,0) (0,3) (4,2) (0,2) (2,0) b) (0,0) (0,3)(3,0) (3,3) (4,2) (0,2) (2,0) c) (0,0) (0,3) (3,3) (3,0) (4,2)(0,2) (2,0) d) (0,0) (3,0) (0,3) (3,3) (0,2) (4,2) (2,0)

Q13. Which of the following is the correct result produced byexecuting the program shown

below? Here, the parameter x is called by value, and theparameter y is called by reference.

Main Program a = 2; b = 3; sub(b, a);

Subprogram sub(x, y) x = x + y; y = x + y; return;

a) a = 2, b = 3 b) a = 2, b = 5 c) a = 7, b = 3 d) a = 7, b =5

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Q14. The prime number division remainder method is a well-knownhashing algorithm. In this method, a key value is divided by anumber N, and the remainder which is also called a hash value isused directly as an index into the hash table. N is the largestprime number less than or equal to the size of the availableaddressable spaces. When the 20 addressable spaces are available,which of the following is the correct hash value calculated fromthe key value 136? Here, a prime number is one that cannot bedivided evenly by any other number except one (1). 2, 3, 5, 7, 11,and 13 are the first few prime numbers.

a) 0 b) 1 c) 3 d) 16 Q15. In a certain computer, a bubble sortof an array of 200 data elements takes the same time

as a quick sort of the array. In case of an array of 40,000 dataelements, how many times faster is a quick sort than a bubble sort?Here, a bubble sort and a quick sort take time proportional to n2and nlog2n respectively, and n is the number of data elements.

a) 10 b) 50 c) 100 d) 200

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Q16. Integers are stored in the 1st to N-th elements of an arrayA (N >1). The flowchart below shows the process to check whichelement of the array contains the same value as X. Which of thefollowing correctly describes the execution result of thisprocess?

Start

1 k

k : N

Endk + 1 k

X : A(k)

>

=

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Q18. The figure shows an RS flip-flop using two NOR gates. Whichof the following is the correct truth table for the flip-flop?Here, unchanged shown in the table means the outputs maintain aprevious state, and unstable means the outputs are in an unstablestate.

a) b)

Inputs Outputs Inputs Outputs S R Q Q S R Q Q 0 0 unchanged 0 0unchanged 0 1 0 1 0 1 1 0 1 0 1 0 1 0 0 1 1 1 unstable 1 1unstable

c) d) Inputs Outputs Inputs Outputs S R Q Q S R Q Q 0 0 unstable0 0 unstable 0 1 0 1 0 1 1 0 1 0 1 0 1 0 0 1 1 1 unchanged 1 1unchanged

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Q19. Which of the following is the correct combination ofvarious addressing modes? Here, X1 is an address which is stored ina program counter. X2 is an address part of an instruction which isaddressed by X1. X3 is an address in which an operand needed toexecute an instruction is stored. X4 is a value in an indexregister. (X2) means the contents of location X2.

Addressing

mode Direct Indirect PC (Program

Counter)-relative Indexed

a) X3 = X2 X3 = X2+X4 X3 = (X2) X3 = X1+X2 b) X3 = X2 X3 = (X2)X3 = X1+X2 X3 = X2+X4 c) X3 = X2 X3 = (X2) X3 = X2+X4 X3 = X1+X2 d)X3 = (X2) X3 = X2 X3 = X1+X2 X3 = X2+X4

Q20. A computer is designed to enable pipeline control so thateach instruction can be

completed in five cycles. How many cycles are needed to execute20 instructions? Here, all instructions can be executed withoutbeing stopped halfway.

a) 20 b) 21 c) 24 d) 25 Q21. Which of the following is anappropriate statement in regard to interrupts?

a) Applications must constantly detect the occurrence ofinterrupts. b) A priority is individually assigned to the cause ofan interrupt in preparation for the

occurrence of multiple interrupts. c) The operation completionnotice from an I/O device is classified as an internal

interrupt. d) When the CPU accepts an interrupt, it stops theprogram currently being executed

and stores the information needed to restart the program in thedesignated area of the hard disk.

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Q22. Which of the following is an appropriate descriptionconcerning cache memory?

a) Cache memory is used to compensate the difference in capacitybetween real storage and virtual storage.

b) If a cache miss occurs in access to main memory, an interruptoccurs and data is transferred from main memory to cache memory bythe program.

c) In one method, when executing a write instruction, data iswritten to both cache memory and main memory. In the other method,data is written only to a block in cache, and the modified block iswritten back into main memory only when it is replaced.

d) The need for cache memory is diminishing these days becauseof the significant improvement in access speeds of semiconductormemory.

Q23. There are two systems A and B whose access times of cacheand main memory are

shown in the table. When a certain program runs on thesesystems, the cache hit ratio and the effective access time are thesame on both systems. What is the cache hit ratio in this case?

Unit: nsec. System A System B

Cache memory 15 10

Main memory 50 70

a) 0.2 b) 0.3 c) 0.5 d) 0.8 Q24. Which of the following is anappropriate description of memory interleaving?

a) Compensating the difference between the access time of mainmemory and that of hard disk.

b) Dividing main memory into several banks and speeding upaccess to sequential addresses in memory.

c) Updating cache and main memory simultaneously. d) Writingdata not needed in cache to main memory when fetching new data tocache

memory.

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Q25. There is a hard disk drive with specifications shown below.When a record of 15 Kbytes is processed, which of the following isthe average access time in milliseconds? Here, the record is storedin one track.

[Specifications] Capacity: 25 Kbytes/track Rotation speed: 2,400revolutions/minute Average seek time: 10 milliseconds

a) 22.5 b) 37.5 c) 40.0 d) 50.0 Q26. The sequence of virtualpage numbers shown below is encountered in the course of

execution of programs on a computer with virtual memory.

[Sequence of virtual page numbers] 3 4 2 6 4 7 1 3 2 6 3 5 1 23

In the computer, the LRU page replacement policy is adopted.Main memory has a capacity of 5 pages for programs, and each pageis initially empty. What is the page hit ratio (percentage of timesthat the referenced page is found in main memory) rounded to thenearest integer value?

a) 20 b) 33 c) 50 d) 67 Q27. What is an advantage of DVD-RAM incomparison with DVD-RW and DVD+RW?

a) Higher access speed b) Higher capacity c) More durablerewritable disc d) Support of dual-layer DVD format

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Q28. Which of the following is the appropriate combination of 4color inks or toners for a full-color printer?

a) Aqua, Orange, Brown, and Black b) Cyan, Magenta, Yellow, andBlack c) Red, Green, Blue, and Black d) Red, Green, Blue, andGray

Q29. Which of the following is the most appropriate indexindicating the performance of a

laser printer?

a) Number of dots per inch (2.54 cm) and number of pages thatcan be printed per minute

b) Number of horizontal dots and number of vertical dots used toprint a character and number of characters that can be printed persecond

c) Spacing of printed lines and number of lines that can beprinted per second d) Types of characters printed and number ofcharacters that can be printed per second

Q30. Computer font is an element in the user interface. Which ofthe following is the most

appropriate explanation concerning the font?

a) A set of characters to be displayed on a computer b) A set ofglyphs and associated information such as code points c) A set ofletters used by a computer as an interface to users d) A visualrepresentation of generic elements generated from a script

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Q31. The figure shows the basic configuration of a computer.Which of the following is the correct combination of A, B, and C tobe inserted in the figure?

A B C a) ALU Memory Control unit

b) Control unit ALU Memory

c) Control unit Memory ALU

d) Memory Control unit ALU Q32. Which of the following is aninput device classified as a pointing device and can be

used for graphical input in a CAD system?

a) Image scanner b) OCR c) OMR d) Tablet Q33. Which of thefollowing is a display, with low-voltage operation andlow-power

consumption, which does not need backlighting because it emitslight when voltage is applied?

a) CRT b) OLED c) PDP d) TFT LCD

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Q34. Which of the following is an appropriate descriptionconcerning the role of a shell in an OS?

a) It allows mouse operations, instead of keyboard operations,such as selecting commands from menus and selecting items on setupscreens in an application.

b) It holds reference information for frequently used files anddirectories so that users can use these items even if they do notknow the actual paths.

c) It interprets the commands entered by the user and instructsthe OS to execute the corresponding functions.

d) It performs efficient security management and mutualexclusion (exclusive control) when multiple users simultaneouslyaccess common resources.

Q35. Which of the following terms refers to the function thatadjusts all address dependent

locations within a program to correspond to the load positionwhen the program is loaded into main memory prior to itsexecution?

a) Optimization b) Recompilation c) Reloading d) Relocation Q36.The table shows the priorities of five tasks A to E. When each taskis independently

executed, the processing sequences and times associated with CPUand I/O devices are also shown in the table. Which of the tasks Bto E should be combined together with task A assigned a highpriority so that there may be no idle time of CPU from starting ofexecution of the combined tasks to ending of both tasks? Here, I/Ooperations never conflict with each other, and any overheadinvolved in the OS can be ignored. The number in parenthesesdenotes each processing time.

Task Priority Processing sequence and time (in milliseconds)during independent execution A High CPU (3) I/O (3) CPU (3) I/O (3)CPU (2)

a) B Low CPU (2) I/O (5) CPU (2) I/O (2) CPU (3) b) C Low CPU(3) I/O (2) CPU (2) I/O (3) CPU (2) c) D Low CPU (3) I/O (2) CPU(3) I/O (1) CPU (4) d) E Low CPU (3) I/O (4) CPU (2) I/O (5) CPU(2)

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Q37. In a search system, when search was first performed undercondition A, there were 5,000 search results. When further narroweddown with condition B, 30% of these search results remained. Ifsearch first performed under condition B produces 10,000 searchresults, what percentage will remain when these are furthernarrowed down with condition A?

a) 15 b) 30 c) 35 d) 60 Q38. Which of the following functionscan reduce the network load by placing a

frequently-used instruction set on the server in advance, whenaccessing a database in a client/server system?

a) Group commitment function b) Multi-thread function of serverprocess c) Stored procedure function d) Two-phase commitmentfunction

Q39. Which of the following is a system where one computer is instandby mode when the

other computer is functioning normally?

a) Dual system b) Duplex system c) Load sharing system d)Multiprocessing system

Q40. There is a CPU whose clock cycle time is 0.01 microsecond.The table below shows a

programs instruction mix executed on the CPU. What is theapproximate MIPS value for the processor?

Type of instruction Number of clock

cycles required for instruction execution

Frequency of occurrence

Data transfer instructions 5 70% Calculation instructions 10 15%Decision instructions 5 10% Jump instruction 1 5%

Total 100%

a) 4.76 b) 10.30 c) 18.02 d) 20.70

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Q41. Which of the following is an appropriate statement withregard to system performance evaluation, when selecting a newcomputer system?

a) Evaluation can be performed in an environment close to actualuse by creating a relatively simple and easy-to-understand programfor test purposes, repeatedly running this program as necessary,and measuring the performance.

b) Evaluation can be performed with high accuracy by using atest program that is relatively unaffected by differences in memorycapacity and I/O device configuration.

c) Performance should be measured in as simple environment aspossible. The data required for evaluation can be obtained byrunning many programs with multiplicity 1.

d) The data required for evaluation can be acquired by runningprograms which are frequently used or time critical.

Q42. A company uses 1,000 PCs. The mean failure in 20 days is tobe restricted to 2 PCs.

How many hours of MTBF are at least required for these PCs?Here, the mean usage time of the PCs is assumed to be 8 hours perday.

a) 8,000 b) 20,000 c) 80,000 d) 160,000 Q43. Which of thefollowing statements concerning programming languagesappropriately

describes Java?

a) It enables the creation of applets and other programs thatrun in web browsers. The applets can be run on any environmentwhere virtual machines are implemented.

b) It incorporates object-oriented concepts of class andinheritance into C and has upper compatibility with C.

c) It is a markup language used on the Web and describes thedocument structure using tags. It enables the creation of hypertextthat links text, movies, etc.

d) It is an interpreter-type, object-oriented language developedin the 1970s and includes editor, debugger, and other integrateddevelopment environment as well as OS functions.

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Q44. There are two methods to execute byte-code programs writtenin Java. In the first method, an interpreter is used to executebyte-code. In the second method, native code generated by acompiler is executed. In the second method, how many lines ofbyte-code are at least required, in order to achieve shorterprocessing time (including compiling time) than the first method,under the conditions below?

[Conditions] (1) The execution time is proportional to thenumber of lines in the program. (2) If a program consisting of 100lines of byte-code is executed using an interpreter,

it takes 0.2 seconds. If the same program is executed aftercompiling, it takes 0.003 seconds.

(3) It takes 0.1 seconds to compile 100 lines. (4) In case ofthe method using a compiler, an overhead of 0.15 seconds isalways

required for file input/output, compiler startup, and so on,regardless of the number of lines in the program.

(5) Other miscellaneous time such as time for downloading theprogram file may be ignored.

a) 50 b) 75 c) 125 d) 155 Q45. Which of the following is anappropriate description concerning a tracer that is used as

a debugging tool?

a) It outputs history information such as execution sequencesand execution results of program instructions.

b) It outputs the contents of a specified memory each time aspecific instruction in a program is executed.

c) It outputs the contents of magnetic tape files and hard diskfiles. d) It outputs the contents of the relevant memory when anerror occurs during the

execution of a program.

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Q46. Which of the following is an appropriate description inregard to a waterfall model?

a) System development proceeds in the order of process flow, sogoing back upstream results in a significant loss ofefficiency.

b) Systems are developed in a short time by involving users,performing development in small groups and utilizing developmenttools.

c) The design and implementation of an application is performedfor a unit of component, and then this process is repeatedsuccessively for every component.

d) Working prototypes are created to verify and evaluaterequirements specifications at an early stage.

Q47. Which of the following is an appropriate descriptionconcerning object-oriented design?

a) A class always has at least one instance. b) A class caninherit attributes and methods from its base class. c) An object isa template for a class. d) Encapsulation refers to the creation ofa library of classes.

Q48. Which of the following is a UML diagram that can be used todescribe interactions

among a number of objects in terms of an exchange ofmessages?

a) Activity diagram b) Class diagram c) Sequence diagram d) Usecase diagram

Q49. A systems design is represented using several diagrams.When a system analyst wants

to confirm the design information such as the relationshipsamong functions and the interface among modules in a hierarchicalmanner, which of the following is the most appropriate diagram thatshould be inspected by the analyst?

a) Data flow diagram b) Entity-relationship diagram c) Statetransition diagram d) Structured chart

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Q50. In the module design of software, which of the following isthe appropriate technique for improving reliability andmaintainability?

a) Module cohesion is increased, and module coupling isstrengthened. b) Module cohesion is increased, and module couplingis weakened. c) Module cohesion is reduced, and module coupling isstrengthened. d) Module cohesion is reduced, and module coupling isweakened.

Q51. The entity-relationship diagrams A and B shows therelationships between three entities

in a school: teacher, class, and classroom. Which of thefollowing is an appropriate interpretation concerning the diagrams?Here, " 1 1 " shows a one-to-one relationship while " 1 * " shows aone-to-many relationship.

Teacher Class Classroom1 * * 1B

Teacher Class Classroom1 1 1 1

A

a) In A, a teacher is responsible for one class only. In B, ateacher may be responsible for one or more classes.

b) In A, one class is always assigned to the same classroom. InB, one class may be assigned to one or more classrooms.

c) In A, one class is always supervised by one teacher. In B,one class may be supervised by one or more teachers.

d) In A, when a teacher or a classroom is decided, a singleclass will be decided. In B, if a teacher and a classroom aredecided, a single class will be decided.

Q52. Which of the following is an appropriate statement inregard to a module unit test?

a) Generally, test cases are created and executed by dedicatedtesting staff, not programmers who have done the coding.

b) The module design documents have already been verified. If aproblem is found in the test results, an error exists in the testcase or the module.

c) The module interface falls outside the scope of the unit testbecause the module interface cannot be tested using a singlemodule.

d) Verification should be performed, in principle, using testcases which cover all the logic paths at least once while reviewingthe module design documents.

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Q53. Which of the following is an appropriate statement inregard to program testing?

a) In the program testing, it is necessary to check not onlywhether the program works as intended but also whether there areany unintended operations.

b) The black box method is used for the test of internalstructure, and the white box method is used for the test ofexternal specifications.

c) The number of errors remaining in a program is unrelated tothe number of errors already found.

d) The objective of program testing is to verify itscompleteness, and the test should be planned under the assumptionthat all errors can be detected.

Q54. Which of the following software test methods is performedto verify whether changes

made for software maintenance are not affecting other portionsof the software?

a) Integration test b) Operation test c) Regression test d)System test

Q55. A check digit for a 4-digit number X1X2X3X4 can becalculated as follows:

mod((X14+X23+X32+X41), 10) When the check digit for the 4-digitnumber 7X242 is equal to 6, which of the following is the correctnumber to be put in X2? Here, mod (a,b) returns the remainder aftera is divided by b.

a) 5 b) 6 c) 7 d) 8 Q56. An implementation plan for a systemdevelopment project was drawn up, and the

critical path was determined. Which of the following tasks canbe identified by the critical path?

a) Tasks directly connected with the delay of the entire projectb) Tasks entailing the highest cost c) Tasks in which the greatestcare should be exercised in terms of system quality d) Tasks wherethe execution sequence can be changed

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Q57. From multiple types of slips, data in items specified foreach type is inputted. Which of the following is the appropriateinitial process to be executed in the program to confirm that allthe required data is inputted?

a) A comparison is made between the number of items specifiedfor each slip type and the number of items inputted.

b) Inputted data is checked against master files to confirm thatthe contents of inputted items are correct.

c) It is confirmed that the contents of inputted items are inagreement with the data formats specified for the slip type.

d) The slip type code is used to inspect the data formats ofinputted items. Q58. When the system development division and theoperations division are separately

organized, which of the following is an appropriate method forensuring that the transition from development to operation proceedssmoothly and efficiently?

a) After completion of the operation test, the developmentdivision explains the system specifications and operation methodsto the operations division.

b) In order to improve the efficiency of the operation test, theoperation test should be performed only by the operations divisionwithout the participation or assistance of the developmentdivision.

c) The development division conducts the operation test,prepares the operation manual, and then hands over the system tothe operations division.

d) The operations division participates actively in systemdevelopment to provide assistance from the viewpoint ofoperability.

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Q59. Which of the following is an appropriate statement inregard to operation of a distributed system?

a) A dedicated administrator is assigned in the same manner asin a centralized system to manage common resources such asdatabases.

b) An administrator is not assigned at each site; instead, theusers involved in operation are thoroughly educated, and operationis left to the users.

c) The extent of user responsibilities is made clear, and eachuser is able to manage the network configuration.

d) The information resources are distributed, so a maliciousnetwork intrusion is not likely to happen, and the workload ofsecurity management is relatively low.

Q60. In the OSI 7-layer model, which of the following layersconverts data from the upper

layer into many tiny pieces called segments for transmissionacross the network?

a) Data Link Layer b) Network Layer c) Physical Layer d)Transport Layer

Q61. Which of the following is the appropriate protocol that candeliver data from sender to

receiver, correctly and in order?

a) IP b) RARP c) SNMP d) TCP Q62. Which of the followingprotocols is used in a TCP/IP network to provide a virtual

terminal function that enables remote login to a host for remoteoperation?

a) FTP b) HTTP c) SMTP d) TELNET

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Q63. When constructing a network with a TCP/IP environment, IPaddress management becomes cumbersome and complicated as the numberof clients becomes larger. Which of the following protocols is ableto increase the efficiency of IP address management by assigning IPaddresses dynamically according to requests from clients?

a) DHCP b) HTTP c) LDAP d) SNMP Q64. Which of the following isan appropriate statement in regard to the transmission

operation of nodes connected to a LAN in the CSMA/CD method?

a) Each node checks whether the carrier is busy and can transmitonly if the carrier is not busy. When collision is detected,transmission is tried again after a random time has elapsed.

b) Each node is assigned a logical ranking, the transmissionprivilege is passed on down the nodes in order of this ranking, andonly the node that has received this privilege can transmit.

c) Only the node that has been assigned a time slot cantransmit. d) The nodes are connected in a ring, a special frame forcontrolling transmission

privileges is circulated, and only the node that has receivedthis frame can transmit. Q65. A message consists of 200 characters.If we can transmit 200 messages on average

before a 1-bit error occurs, what is the bit error rate of thetransmission line? Here, 1 character equals to 2 bytes while 1 byteequals to 8 bits.

a) 1/640000 b) 1/320000 c) 1/80000 d) 1/64000

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Q66. Which of the following appropriately describes a schema ina relational database management system?

a) It is a set of data definitions such as the data properties,format, relationship with other data, etc.

b) It is not an actual table but a virtual table from theperspective of the user. c) It is the general term for databaseoperations such as data insertion, updating,

deletion, search, etc. d) It is the general term for variousconditions and constraints that are used to maintain

the database in absolutely perfect condition. Q67. Which of thefollowing appropriately describes a domain (defined area), a termused for

relational databases?

a) It is a relationship derived by applying the relationaloperations to the basic relationship.

b) It is a set of values that attributes can hold. c) It is aspecification for copying the real world to a database. d) It isthe general term for data insertion, updating, deletion, and searchin a database.

Q68. Which of the following operations extracts specific columnsfrom tables in a relational

database?

a) Join b) Projection c) Selection d) Union Q69. When atransaction fails, which of the following should be performed inorder to abort it

and to rebuild the previous state of the database?

a) Archive b) Checkpoint dump c) Commit d) Rollback

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Q70. There is an OS that can set access privileges to read,update, and create subordinate files in a directory. These threetypes of access privileges can be set to enabled or disabled using1 bit. If these three bits are set by an octal (base-8) numberexpressed by numerals 0 to 7, which of the following is anappropriate description, taking into account the trial resultsbelow?

[Trial results] (1) When 0 was set, all accesses were disabled.(2) When 3 was set, read and update were enabled, but create wasdisabled. (3) When 7 was set, all accesses were enabled.

a) When 2 is set, read and create are enabled. b) When 4 is set,only create is enabled. c) When 5 is set, only update is enabled.d) When 6 is set, read and update are enabled.

Q71. Which of the following is an appropriate description of thevirus pattern file that is used

in virus protection measures for computers?

a) It is a file included in virus protection software and isused to repair files that have been infected by viruses.

b) It is a file that records the program code of known virusesand is used to re-enact viruses to monitor their activities.

c) It is a file that records the signature code of known virusesand is used to detect viruses by the virus protection software.

d) It is a restoration file and is used when a data file isdamaged by a virus.

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Q72. Against what kind of attacks does SSL (Secure Socket Layer)protect users on the Internet?

a) Bruce force attack b) DoS (Denial of Service) attack c) IPSpoofing d) Tapping and exploitation of data

Q73. Which of the following is an appropriate statementregarding elements of information

security defined in ISO/IEC 17799:2005?

a) Availability is ensuring that information is accessible onlyto those authorized to have access.

b) Confidentiality is ensuring that authorized users have accessto information and associated assets when required.

c) Information security is characterized as the preservation ofconfidentiality and integrity of information assets, but not itsavailability.

d) Integrity is safe-guarding the accuracy and completeness ofinformation and processing methods.

Q74. Which of the following is an appropriate descriptionconcerning CRM (Customer

Relationship Management)?

a) It is a management technique that vastly improves efficiencythroughout the entire supply chain by exchanging all informationsuch as production, inventory, purchasing, sales, and distributionin real time.

b) It is a method for wholesalers and manufacturers to expandtheir transactions by supporting the business activities ofretailers with the aim of increasing retailers sales andprofits.

c) It is a technique for effectively and comprehensivelyplanning and managing business resources throughout an entirecompany to raise management efficiency.

d) It is an approach for increasing customer satisfaction andultimately revenues by sharing information and raising the servicelevels, not only in the sales division but in all customer relatedchannels within a company.

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Q75. The figures show the break-even point for two companies Aand B. Which of the following is an appropriate statement withregard to the profit/loss analysis of Companies A and B?

a) Both companies have the same break-even point, so theirprofits and loss are also the same.

b) Both companies have the same break-even point, so when bothcompanies are producing the same profit, their sales are also thesame.

c) Company A has low variable costs per unit of product, so whensales exceed the break-even point, Company A's profits are largerthan Company B.

d) When sales figures increase for both Company A and Company B,Company B has lower fixed costs, so its profits are larger thanCompany A.

Q76. Which of the following is an appropriate statementconcerning a radar chart?

a) A bar graph and a line graph are combined together tographically show the ratio of the cumulative total of each item tothat of all items, thereby indicating important managementitems.

b) Relations between many causes and a specific effect aresystematically represented in a fishbone-like form, therebyclarifying what kinds of causes are associated with a singleeffect.

c) The degree of attainment of the benchmarking goal is plottedon the radial axis which corresponds to each item. All such plottedpoints are connected by a line, thereby making a comparison ofoverall balance.

d) The schedule and actual achievement record during theexecution period are shown, for each job, in a bar graph.

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Q77. The figure below shows plots of the relationship betweenvalues of a certain factor x, in the product manufacturing process,and values of quality characteristics y. Which of the following isan appropriate description concerning this figure?

0 x

y

a) The coefficient of correlation between x and y is negative.b) The coefficient of correlation between x and y is positive. c)The regression equation for estimating y from x is the same as thatfor estimating x

from y. d) To estimate y from x, it is necessary to calculatesecond order regression coefficients.

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Q78. In order to shorten the cumulative duration of activitieson the critical path by one day, which of the following is theappropriate action to be taken?

a) To shorten the activities B and F by one day respectively b)To shorten the activity B by one day c) To shorten the activity Hby one day d) To shorten the activity I by one day

5

1 2

4

6

7

8

3

Dummy Activity

Activity- A (4 days)

Activity-B (6 days)

Activity-C(5 days)

Activity-I (6 days)

Activity-E(1 day)

Activity-F (2 days)

Activity-D (2 days)

Activity-H (3 days)

Activity-G (1 day)

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Q79. Three products A, B, and C are produced from raw materialsat plant X. The production time per unit volume of each product,the required quantity of raw materials, and the profit amounts areshown in the table below. The maximum production hours per month atthis plant total 240 hours, and the amount of raw materials thatcan be fed for production is 150 kg per month. Under theseconditions, management would like to know how many of A, B, and Cshould be manufactured so as to yield maximum profits. Which of thefollowing is an appropriate method for solving this problem?

Product A B C

Production time (hours) 2 3 1

Quantity of raw materials required (kg) 2 1 2

Profit (US$) 80 50 50

a) Fixed order quantity system b) Least squares method c) Linearprogramming method d) Moving average method

Q80. There are various types of e-commerce, depending on thetransaction: B2B, B2C, C2C,

m-commerce, etc. Which of the following refers to the activitiesassociated with the selling and buying of goods and services viathe Internet such as an online auction website and an online fleamarket?

a) B2B (Business to Business) b) B2C (Business to Consumer) c)C2C (Consumer to Consumer) d) m-commerce (Mobile Commerce)

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